20 October 2026
Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh addressed the 25th Meeting of the Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation at Dushanbe in Tajikistan.
He said there must be no justification for terrorism, no double standards, and no place for those who finance or support it.
He said the Bishkek Summit had decided to make the Universal Centre at Tashkent and the Anti-Drug Centre at Dushanbe permanent bodies of the Organisation.
He cited the International North-South Transport Corridor and the Chabahar Port, and said connectivity must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity.
The meeting adopted the Joint Communique, the budget of the Organisation for 2027, and the Action Plan for the Multilateral Trade and Economic Cooperation Programme for 2026-2030.
India has been a full member of the Organisation since 2017, and will host the first Civilisational Dialogue Forum of the grouping later in 2026.
Meeting:
25th Council of Heads of Government
Venue:
Dushanbe, Tajikistan
India a full member since:
2017
Why it matters for exams: Summit diplomacy questions ask which city hosted a meeting and what the meeting adopted.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
SCO Shanghai Cooperation Organisation — A Eurasian political, economic and security grouping that India joined as a full member in 2017.
CHG Council of Heads of Government — The body of the grouping that deals mainly with trade and economic cooperation.
20 October 2026
Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh said India's nuclear programme is dedicated to peaceful purposes and not to warfare, linking it to the vision of Dr. Homi Bhabha.
He spoke in an interview on the sidelines of the Bloomberg Economy Forum 2026.
He set out a target of 100 GW of nuclear power capacity by 2047 and net zero emissions by 2070.
He said nuclear power is expected to meet rising electricity demand, including demand from artificial intelligence and data centres, by supplying continuous and reliable clean power.
He said artificial intelligence should be treated as a tool across sectors rather than as a field in itself, and that human judgement remains necessary.
He said critical and sensitive sectors have been opened to non-government players, widening private participation.
Nuclear capacity target:
100 GW by 2047
Net zero target:
2070
Forum:
Bloomberg Economy Forum 2026
Why it matters for exams: The two target years and the capacity figure are the kind of numbers an energy question turns on.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
GW Gigawatt — A unit of power equal to one thousand megawatts.
20 October 2026
WWF-India's Programme Centre - Resource Partner, supported by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, launched a nationwide Green Diwali Campaign.
The campaign runs from 20 October to 8 November 2026 and asks citizens to celebrate a cracker-free Diwali.
It is addressed to schools, colleges, resident welfare associations and local communities, with a special focus on the 130 cities covered under the National Clean Air Programme.
The pledge asks people to avoid firecrackers, use diyas and energy-efficient lights, avoid single-use plastic, segregate waste and choose local products.
Participants report their activities through an online form, giving the number of people who took the pledge and geo-tagged photographs.
The campaign follows the Mission LiFE approach of changes in individual lifestyle.
Campaign period:
20 October to 8 November 2026
Cities in focus:
130 cities under NCAP
Why it matters for exams: The count of cities under the National Clean Air Programme is a standing environment question.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
NCAP National Clean Air Programme — The Union programme for reducing particulate pollution in identified cities.
EIACP Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme — The environment ministry's information and awareness network.
20 October 2026
The nine-day Shilp Samagam Mela 2026 of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment concluded at the Dasara Exhibition Grounds in Mysuru, Karnataka.
The mela had 83 stalls, of which 80 were allotted to artisans, including 37 women artisans.
Artisans came from twelve States and Union Territories: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan, Puducherry, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
Artisans were given free stalls along with travel, daily allowance, transport of goods and meals.
The Ministry has held these fairs since 2022, and 975 artisans have benefited from thirteen such fairs so far.
Mysuru was the first Shilp Samagam Mela of the financial year 2026-27, and further fairs are planned at Guwahati, Dilli Haat in New Delhi, Jodhpur and Lucknow.
Stalls:
83, of which 80 for artisans
Women artisans:
37
Artisans benefited so far:
975 across thirteen fairs
Why it matters for exams: Stall counts, State counts and the cumulative beneficiary figure are all askable from this release.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
NSKFDC National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation — One of the corporations under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment that supports target-group artisans.
20 October 2026
Justice Amit Mahajan of the Delhi High Court allowed a petition by the Central Public Information Officer of the Directorate of Personal Services at Air Headquarters, Indian Air Force.
The case arose from a request by Commodore Lokesh K Batra, who sought Special Flight Returns records of foreign visits by Prime Ministers on Air Force aircraft between 1 April 2013 and 5 June 2018.
The Central Information Commission had directed the Air Force in July 2020 to supply certified copies of the relevant records.
The Court held that the information may be withheld where disclosure could compromise national security or endanger the Prime Minister's life and physical safety.
It held that redacting the names of security personnel would not remove the risk, because the remaining details could be correlated with public information to reveal security arrangements.
It held that the spending of public funds on the visits does not by itself justify disclosure, and that the assessment of security risk belongs primarily to the security agencies.
It held that Sections 8(1)(a) and 8(1)(g) do not permit disclosure merely on the ground of a larger public interest.
Judge:
Justice Amit Mahajan
Records sought:
Special Flight Returns, 1 April 2013 to 5 June 2018
Sections relied on:
Sections 8(1)(a) and 8(1)(g)
Why it matters for exams: The exemption clauses of the Right to Information Act and the role of the Central Information Commission are standard polity questions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
CIC Central Information Commission — The appellate body under the Right to Information Act for central public authorities.
SFR Special Flight Returns — Air Force records relating to special flights.
20 October 2026
Justice Tribhuvan Dahiya of the Punjab and Haryana High Court decided a petition by Haryana 24 News Network Private Limited in CWP No. 30190 of 2026.
The Superintendent of Police, Yamuna Nagar, had sent an intimation dated 21 August 2026 to Meta to disable the company's Facebook page.
The Court held that an intimation under Section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology Act must be issued by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector General of Police, specifically authorised by the appropriate government.
Since the intimation came from a Superintendent of Police, the Court held it was issued without jurisdiction and set it aside.
Although the Information Technology Rules of 2021 do not expressly require prior notice, the Court read into Rule 3(2) an obligation to furnish the user with a copy of the intimation when it is sent to the intermediary.
The Court rejected the argument that the user should first use the platform's grievance mechanism, since a user who does not know the intimation cannot meaningfully challenge the blocking.
It directed that the Facebook page be restored within 24 hours of receipt of a certified copy of the order.
Judge:
Justice Tribhuvan Dahiya
Minimum rank for intimation:
Deputy Inspector General of Police
Restoration deadline:
24 hours
Why it matters for exams: The rank requirement and the rule number are the precise details a law and governance question will test.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Intermediary Intermediary under the Information Technology Act — A service such as a social media platform that stores or transmits content on behalf of others.
20 October 2026
Justice M.G.S. Kamal of the Karnataka High Court decided Writ Petition No. 10451 of 2018 filed by B.R. Ramakrishna against the Union of India.
The Court upheld the constitutional validity of Sections 20A, 20B and 20C of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, which were inserted by the Amendment Act of 2010.
Under these provisions the prohibited area runs 100 metres in all directions from a centrally protected monument, and the regulated area runs a further 200 metres from the limit of the prohibited area.
The Court held that the classification of areas is neither unreasonable nor vague, and connected it to the duty of the State under Article 49 to protect monuments.
It held that regulating land use is not expropriation, and said a reduction in the utilisation of land cannot be equated with expropriation of the land.
The petition was partly allowed because the records of the Archaeological Survey of India did not show how the 59-metre distance from the boundary of the Madhugiri Fort was established.
The authorities were directed to reconsider the petitioner's representation after a fresh survey within three months.
Prohibited area:
100 metres
Regulated area:
a further 200 metres
Sections upheld:
Sections 20A, 20B and 20C
Why it matters for exams: The 100-metre and 200-metre limits and Article 49 are frequently asked together.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
AMASR Act Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 — The central law protecting monuments of national importance.
ASI Archaeological Survey of India — The body that maintains centrally protected monuments.
20 October 2026
A division bench of Chief Justice Mahesh Chandra Tripathi and Justice Advait Sethna of the Bombay High Court agreed to hear a petition by the actor Imran Khan against the Foreigners Regional Registration Officer.
Khan is a citizen of the United States and holds an Overseas Citizen of India card.
The Foreigners Regional Registration Officer issued a Leave India Notice directing him to leave the country by 28 October.
The notice states that his conduct contravened the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, and warns of prosecution under the relevant provisions.
The petition says the notice was issued without an opportunity to be heard and that it violates the statutory rights available to Overseas Citizen of India cardholders.
Senior Advocate Venkatesh Dhond mentioned the plea before the bench, which listed it for 26 October.
Bench:
Chief Justice Mahesh Chandra Tripathi and Justice Advait Sethna
Hearing date:
26 October
Statute cited in the notice:
Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025
Why it matters for exams: The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 and the status of an Overseas Citizen of India cardholder are new polity topics.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
OCI Overseas Citizen of India — A status that gives a foreign citizen of Indian origin long-term entry and residence rights, but not voting rights.
FRRO Foreigners Regional Registration Officer — The officer who handles registration and visa matters of foreigners in a region.
20 October 2026
ISRO completed the Crew Module and Service Module separation tests for the Gaganyaan missions at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram.
A test setup simulated the overall assembly of the two modules with extensive instrumentation.
The tests simulated the severing of several umbilical connections, with a separation sequence of timed events using pyrotechnic devices and jettisoning systems.
The tests validated the avionics systems, the Inertial Navigation Systems, the Thermal Protection System covering the aft and conical heat shields, and the Crew Module Deployable Umbilical Shield.
They also validated the pyrotechnic devices of the Crew Module Uprighting System and of the Thermal and Humidity Control System.
The tests confirmed the design of the separation system and the shock survivability of these subsystems, and support the first uncrewed Gaganyaan mission.
Centre:
Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram
Test:
Crew Module and Service Module separation
Why it matters for exams: Gaganyaan test milestones and the centre where they are done are standard space questions.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
VSSC Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre — The ISRO centre at Thiruvananthapuram that leads launch vehicle development.
Umbilical Umbilical connection — A cable or line carrying power, data or fluids between two parts of a spacecraft until separation.
20 October 2026
A study led by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bengaluru, carried out the first joint analysis of the same solar eruptions observed by Aditya-L1 and Proba-3.
The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph on Aditya-L1 made spectroscopic observations from 1.05 to 1.5 solar radii in the 5303 Angstrom green coronal line, and the ASPIICS instrument on Proba-3 imaged from about 1.1 to 3 solar radii.
Between July and December 2025 only two coronal mass ejections were recorded simultaneously by the two instruments, on 14 September 2025 and 16 September 2025.
The first eruption moved at about 645 kilometres per second, and its thermal energy was about one per cent of the total.
The second moved at 145 kilometres per second, and its thermal energy grew until it matched its kinetic energy.
Magnetic energy was comparable to or greater than kinetic energy in these eruptions, and the gas in them was measured at about two million degrees.
The study appeared in the journal Astronomy and Astrophysics.
Instruments:
VELC on Aditya-L1 and ASPIICS on Proba-3
Eruption speeds:
about 645 km/s and 145 km/s
Green coronal line:
5303 Angstrom
Why it matters for exams: The instrument names on the two missions and the wavelength of the green coronal line are precise, askable facts.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
CME Coronal Mass Ejection — A large release of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun's corona.
VELC Visible Emission Line Coronagraph — The main payload on Aditya-L1, developed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics with ISRO.
Background
The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950, under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
It is a constitutional authority responsible for the control, supervision and conduct of elections, and it is a multi-member body comprising the Chief Election Commissioner and two other Election Commissioners.
The Commission oversees elections to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, to State Legislative Assemblies and State Legislative Councils wherever they exist, to the Union Territories of Puducherry and the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and to the offices of the President and Vice President of India.
It has conducted 18 general elections and over 400 State Legislative Assembly elections.
National Voters' Day is observed on January 25 each year to mark the foundation day of the Commission, and new voters are handed their Elector Photo Identity Card at the function.
Among its reforms, cVIGIL allows quick citizen reporting of violations, polling stations have 100% webcasting, and the delivery of the Elector Photo Identity Card has been fast-tracked to 15 days.
Constitutional article:
Article 324
Established:
January 25, 1950
Composition:
Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners
General elections conducted:
18
EPIC delivery:
fast-tracked to 15 days
Why it matters for exams: Article 324 and the Commission's multi-member composition are asked in almost every general studies paper, and the list of elections it does and does not conduct is the common trap.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
ECI Election Commission of India — The constitutional authority that controls, supervises and conducts elections in India.
EPIC Elector Photo Identity Card — The photo identity card issued to a registered voter.
cVIGIL cVIGIL — A mobile application through which citizens report model code violations during elections.
Background
This background sits behind India's drive to 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030, for which storage is the missing piece. India crossed 300 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity in July 2026 after adding about 55.29 GW in 2025-26. The Central Electricity Authority projects 73.93 GW of storage by 2031-32, of which 26.69 GW would come from pumped storage projects and 47.24 GW from battery storage. As of August 2026 India had 7.43 GW of pumped storage operating across ten projects above 25 MW, 15.87 GW under construction across eleven projects and 10.40 GW concurred across eight more. Surveys have identified 320 sites with a combined potential of 345.38 GW, of which the western region accounts for 129.72 GW, led by Maharashtra at 67.36 GW and Gujarat at 33.36 GW. At the end of 2025 global installed pumped hydro stood at about 159.8 GW, with China at about 66 GW, Japan about 22 GW and the United States about 19 GW, and India fourth at 7.18 GW. Policy support includes a full waiver of inter-state transmission charges for twenty-five years for projects awarded construction by 30 June 2028.
Operating pumped storage:
7.43 GW across 10 projects
Identified potential:
345.38 GW at 320 sites
CEA storage projection by 2031-32:
73.93 GW
India's global rank:
Fourth
Why it matters for exams: Storage capacity numbers and the 500 GW non-fossil target are recurring energy questions, and India's fourth rank in pumped hydro is a ready fact.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
PSP Pumped storage project — A hydro plant that pumps water to an upper reservoir when power is cheap and releases it to generate when demand is high.
ISTS Inter-State Transmission System — The national grid network whose charges are waived for eligible renewable and storage projects.