2 October 2026
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal spoke on the concluding day of the G20 Trade Ministers' Meeting at Milwaukee in the United States.
He said India is the fastest-growing large economy in the world, serves the needs of 1.4 billion people, and does not have structural excess capacity in the sectors identified by the G20.
He said trade concerns should be addressed through WTO-consistent measures and on the basis of evidence.
He described Most-Favoured-Nation treatment as a key guarantee of a fair trading system and asked that special and differential treatment for developing countries be preserved.
On forced labour he said India's commitment is absolute and unconditional, and recalled that India has ratified ILO Conventions 29 and 105.
He held bilateral meetings with his counterparts from Australia, Saudi Arabia, France, the Republic of Korea and Canada.
India extended its support to the United Kingdom's G20 Presidency for 2027.
Meeting:
G20 Trade Ministers' Meeting
Venue:
Milwaukee, U.S.
ILO Conventions ratified by India:
29 and 105
G20 Presidency supported:
United Kingdom, 2027
Why it matters for exams: India's position at a G20 ministerial, and the WTO principles it invoked, are standard material for economy and international-relations questions.
Kerala PSCUPSCBank
In plain words
MFN Most-Favoured-Nation treatment — A WTO rule requiring a member to give every other member the same trade terms it gives its best-treated partner.
WTO World Trade Organization — The Geneva-based body that administers the rules of global trade and settles trade disputes.
ILO International Labour Organization — The United Nations agency that frames international labour standards as conventions.
S&DT Special and Differential Treatment — WTO provisions that allow developing countries longer timelines and softer obligations.
2 October 2026
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority facilitated an export of frozen food products from Haryana to Canada led by a farmer producer organisation.
The exporter is Aterna Foods Producer Company Limited, based in Sonipat, Haryana.
The consignment was 24 metric tons, packed in 2,295 boxes, and was valued at CAD 35,140.
The products included green peas, mixed vegetables, peas and carrots, sweet corn and samosa.
APEDA supported the exporting unit under its Financial Assistance Scheme.
APEDA Chairman Abhishek Dev said the direct export by the farmer producer organisation would significantly enhance value realisation for the producers.
APEDA functions under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Exporting FPO:
Aterna Foods Producer Company Limited
Quantity:
24 metric tons (2,295 boxes)
Value:
CAD 35,140
Origin and destination:
Sonipat, Haryana to Canada
APEDA Chairman:
Abhishek Dev
Why it matters for exams: APEDA, its parent ministry and farmer producer organisations are a recurring combination in agriculture and economy questions.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
APEDA Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority — A body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry that promotes exports of scheduled agricultural and processed food products.
FPO Farmer Producer Organisation — A collective of farmers registered as a company or society so that it can buy inputs and sell produce together.
1 October 2026
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India celebrated its tenth Annual Day at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi.
Minister of State for Corporate Affairs Harsh Malhotra inaugurated the event.
The Board was established on 1 October 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
The Code has been amended seven times in its ten years, most recently through the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2026.
More than 4,400 insolvency professionals and more than 6,000 registered valuers are now part of the ecosystem.
A publication titled 'Shaping the Next Decade of IBC: The Road Ahead' was released at the event.
Winners of the seventh National Online Quiz on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were also recognised.
Established:
1 October 2016
Insolvency professionals registered:
Over 4,400
Registered valuers:
More than 6,000
Amendments to the Code:
Seven sets in ten years
Publication released:
Shaping the Next Decade of IBC: The Road Ahead
Why it matters for exams: The founding date of the IBBI, its parent Code and the number of amendments are direct one-line questions in banking and economy papers.
Kerala PSCUPSCBank
In plain words
IBBI Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India — The regulator of insolvency professionals, agencies and information utilities under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
IBC Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 — The law that consolidated India's insolvency rules into a single time-bound resolution process.
Registered valuer Registered valuer — A professional registered with the IBBI to value assets in insolvency and company-law proceedings.
2 October 2026
Dhiraj Bommadevara and Kumkum Anil Mohod won silver in the recurve mixed team event in archery at the Asian Games.
The Prime Minister's Office said the pair gave India its first-ever silver in this event.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the two archers had displayed remarkable skill and zeal.
He extended his best wishes to both for their upcoming endeavours.
The same day the Prime Minister also congratulated the Indian women's recurve team on its gold in the team event.
Athletes:
Dhiraj Bommadevara and Kumkum Anil Mohod
Event:
Recurve mixed team, archery
Medal:
Silver, India's first in the event
Why it matters for exams: First-ever medals in a named Asian Games event, with the athletes' names, are among the most frequently asked sports facts.
Kerala PSCSSCBank
In plain words
Recurve Recurve archery — The Olympic form of archery, using a bow whose limbs curve away from the archer at the tips.
Mixed team Mixed team event — An event in which one man and one woman compete together for the same country.
2 October 2026
Harshita Tomar and Shital Verma won the bronze medal in the women's skiff event in sailing at the Asian Games.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated the pair on the result.
He said that with determination and consistency they had taken India onto the podium and had also bettered the previous performance.
He extended his best wishes to both for their future pursuits.
Athletes:
Harshita Tomar and Shital Verma
Event:
Women's skiff, sailing
Medal:
Bronze
Why it matters for exams: Sailing medals are asked less often than athletics, which is exactly why the names and the event are worth fixing.
Kerala PSCSSC
In plain words
Skiff Skiff class — A light, fast two-person sailing dinghy raced as a separate Asian Games and Olympic class.
2 October 2026
The Ministry of Culture announced that the eighth edition of PM Mementos, the e-auction of gifts and artefacts presented to the Prime Minister, is live and has been extended until 31 October 2026.
This edition showcases 30 mementos from Delhi.
The collection comprises nine photo frames, nine mementos, six idols, sculptures and statues, two Delhi Metro models, one item of sports memorabilia and one painting, along with art and craft items.
Bidding is through the portal pmmementos.gov.in.
The proceeds from the auction will go to the Namami Gange Project.
Edition:
8th edition of PM Mementos
Mementos on offer:
30, from Delhi
Extended until:
31 October 2026
Portal:
pmmementos.gov.in
Proceeds to:
Namami Gange Project
Why it matters for exams: Examiners like the link between the PM Mementos auction and the Namami Gange Project, and the portal that runs it.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
Namami Gange Namami Gange Programme — The Union government's flagship mission to clean and conserve the river Ganga.
E-auction Electronic auction — An auction conducted entirely online, with bids placed through a web portal.
28 September 2026
A Supreme Court bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K.V. Viswanathan passed a set of directions to recover unpaid traffic fines in the road-safety case S. Rajaseekaran v. Union of India.
The Court recorded total recoverable e-challan dues of Rs 49,194.05 crore, of which Rs 26,175.05 crore had been recovered, leaving about Rs 23,000 crore outstanding.
Where an e-challan is found unpaid during a random inspection, authorities are to take steps to impound the vehicle itself.
States are to freeze online services for such vehicles, including fitness and pollution-under-control certificates, registration renewals and transfers of ownership, until the fines are paid.
Driving licence renewal is to be suspended for repeat violators and defaulting vehicles are to be blacklisted on the Parivahan portal.
The directions rest on Section 136A of the Motor Vehicles Act and Rule 167A of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, read with the Standard Operating Procedure of 28 October 2025.
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is to run a public online dashboard, updated monthly, showing state-wise and corridor-wise progress on electronic enforcement.
Case:
S. Rajaseekaran v. Union of India
Total recoverable dues:
Rs 49,194.05 crore
Recovered:
Rs 26,175.05 crore
Statutory basis:
Section 136A, Motor Vehicles Act; Rule 167A, Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989
Dashboard:
Monthly public dashboard by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Why it matters for exams: The case name, the two statutory provisions and the recovery figures make this one of the most askable judicial orders of the week.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
E-challan Electronic challan — A traffic penalty notice generated electronically, usually from camera evidence, and served digitally.
PUC Pollution Under Control certificate — A certificate confirming that a vehicle's emissions are within the permitted limits.
Parivahan Parivahan portal — The Union transport ministry's national portal for vehicle registration and driving-licence services.
Section 136A Section 136A, Motor Vehicles Act — The provision allowing electronic monitoring and enforcement of road safety rules.
1 October 2026
A Supreme Court bench of Justices Manoj Misra and Vijay Bishnoi passed an interim order in the Karnataka government's appeal concerning recruitment by the Karnataka Public Service Commission.
On 21 September 2026 the Karnataka High Court had constituted a Special Investigation Team headed by senior police officer Alok Kumar and ordered a de novo investigation.
The Supreme Court stayed the directions in paragraphs 34(i) and 34(ii) of the High Court judgment, which were the ones constituting the SIT and ordering the fresh investigation.
The cases concern recruitment to 400 Veterinary Officer posts and to Industrial Extension Officer and Gazetted Probationer posts.
The Court directed the Karnataka government to file objections to the proposed SIT members in a sealed cover and to suggest alternative names.
Notice in the matter was made returnable on 12 October.
Bench:
Justices Manoj Misra and Vijay Bishnoi
High Court order stayed:
Paragraphs 34(i) and 34(ii), order of 21 September 2026
SIT head named by the High Court:
Alok Kumar
Posts involved:
400 Veterinary Officer posts; Industrial Extension Officer and Gazetted Probationer posts
Notice returnable:
12 October
Why it matters for exams: An interim stay that names the exact paragraphs it suspends is a good illustration of how appellate interference works in practice.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
SIT Special Investigation Team — A team of officers constituted for one specific investigation, often on a court's direction.
De novo De novo investigation — An investigation started afresh from the beginning rather than continued from where it stood.
KPSC Karnataka Public Service Commission — The constitutional body that conducts recruitment to Karnataka's state services.
1 October 2026
A Supreme Court bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran declined to interfere with a Delhi High Court ruling in a copyright dispute over the song 'En Iniya Pon Nilave' from the 1980 Tamil film Moodu Pani.
The Delhi High Court Division Bench, led by Justice C. Hari Shankar, had held in May 2026 that the composer Ilaiyaraaja's copyright is limited to the music of the song and does not extend to the lyrics or the sound recording.
Saregama India Limited claimed the rights through an assignment from the film's original producer, and opposed the use of a recreated version.
Ilaiyaraaja's counsel argued that the ruling undermined Section 13(4) of the Copyright Act, 1957, which preserves separate copyright in works underlying a cinematograph film or sound recording.
The Supreme Court found no legal error in the High Court's decision but clarified that the High Court's observations are prima facie and are not to operate as binding precedent.
The producers had paid the deposit of Rs 30 lakh ordered earlier by the Single Judge.
Bench:
Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran
Song and film:
'En Iniya Pon Nilave', Moodu Pani (1980)
Provision argued:
Section 13(4), Copyright Act, 1957
Deposit paid:
Rs 30 lakh
Why it matters for exams: The split between music, lyrics and sound recording under Section 13(4) of the Copyright Act is a favourite of law and general-studies papers alike.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Section 13(4) Section 13(4), Copyright Act, 1957 — It preserves a separate copyright in a work that is used in a cinematograph film or sound recording.
Assignment Assignment of copyright — A transfer of copyright from the owner to another person, in whole or in part.
Prima facie Prima facie — On the face of it; a tentative view taken without finally deciding the question.
30 September 2026
The India Meteorological Department's end-of-season figures put the June to September 2026 southwest monsoon rainfall at 759.4 mm against a long period average of 868.6 mm.
That is 87 per cent of the long period average, a deficit of about 13 per cent, and the lowest seasonal rainfall since 2015.
It is the fourth-lowest monsoon since 2001 and the thirteenth-lowest since 1901.
East and Northeast India recorded 1,017 mm, or 74 per cent of its average, the region's lowest monsoon rainfall since 1901, while the South Peninsula got 542 mm, or 76 per cent.
Northwest India was at 94 per cent and Central India at 97 per cent of their averages.
Of the 36 meteorological subdivisions, 18 had normal rainfall, 17 were deficient and Odisha alone was in the excess category.
June was the weakest month at 65 per cent of normal, July was at 101 per cent, August at 84 per cent and September at 92 per cent.
Season rainfall:
759.4 mm
Long period average:
868.6 mm
Share of the average:
87 per cent
East and Northeast India:
1,017 mm, 74 per cent of average
Subdivisions:
18 normal, 17 deficient, 1 excess, of 36
Why it matters for exams: Seasonal monsoon percentages, the long period average and the subdivision count are asked almost every year in geography and environment sections.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
LPA Long Period Average — The average rainfall over a long reference period, against which a season's rainfall is measured.
IMD India Meteorological Department — The national weather agency, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, that issues India's monsoon statements.
Subdivision Meteorological subdivision — One of the 36 regions into which the IMD divides India for rainfall reporting.
Background
Challenges to environmental clearances, pollution and forest diversion in India are heard not by the civil courts but by the National Green Tribunal, which the Tribunal's own website says was established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. It was set up for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and the conservation of forests and other natural resources, including the enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and the grant of relief and compensation for damage to persons and property. New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four places of sitting. The Tribunal is mandated to endeavour to dispose of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of their filing. It is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and is guided by the principles of natural justice; Section 19 of the Act gives it the power to regulate its own procedure. It also entertains letter petitions bringing substantial environmental damage to light.
Established:
18.10.2010
Principal Place of Sitting:
New Delhi
Other places of sitting:
Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, Chennai
Disposal mandate:
Within 6 months of filing
Why it matters for exams: The Tribunal's founding Act, its principal and other places of sitting and its six-month disposal mandate are standard objective-question material in polity and environment papers.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
NGT National Green Tribunal — A specialised tribunal for environmental disputes, not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure.
Background
Every RTI application that a central ministry or public authority refuses can travel up to the Central Information Commission, the body whose own website says it was constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities. Its powers and functions are set out in sections 18, 19, 20 and 25 of the RTI Act, 2005. These broadly cover adjudication in second appeal for giving information; directions for record keeping and for suo motu disclosures; receiving and enquiring into a complaint about an inability to file an RTI application; the imposition of penalties; and monitoring and reporting, including the preparation of an Annual Report. The decisions of the Commission are final.
Constituted with effect from:
12-10-2005
Founding Act:
Right to Information Act, 2005
Sections carrying its powers:
Sections 18, 19, 20 and 25
Jurisdiction:
All Central Public Authorities
Why it matters for exams: The Commission's founding Act, the sections that carry its powers and the second-appeal route are among the most frequently asked facts on the RTI regime.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
RTI Right to Information — The 2005 Act under which a citizen may seek information held by a public authority.
CPIO Central Public Information Officer — The officer in a central public authority who receives and answers RTI applications.