19 October 2026
The AYUSH Department of the Bureau of Indian Standards held two national events on standardisation in Ayurveda, Yoga and Sowa-Rigpa. Over 600 experts, practitioners and industry representatives took part. PRAGATI 2026, the National Seminar on Standardization in Ayurveda and Yoga, was held at Belagavi in Karnataka with the KLE Shri BMK Ayurveda Mahavidyalaya and the KLE Academy of Higher Education and Research. The second event was a brainstorming session at the National Institute of Sowa-Rigpa, Leh, in the Union Territory of Ladakh, alongside the 5th Sowa-Rigpa Sectional Committee meeting. Sessions covered standardised practice and education, support for industry and start-ups, raw material quality and safety, and intellectual property over traditional knowledge. Vaidya Jayant Deopujari, Chairperson of the BIS Ayurveda Sectional Committee, was among the speakers.
Participants:
Over 600
Seminar venue:
Belagavi, Karnataka
Sowa-Rigpa session venue:
National Institute of Sowa-Rigpa, Leh
Why it matters for exams: Standard-setting for traditional medicine links the BIS, the AYUSH system and Ladakh's Sowa-Rigpa institute, all recurring exam topics.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
BIS Bureau of Indian Standards — India's national standards body, which frames Indian Standards and runs certification schemes.
Sowa-Rigpa Sowa-Rigpa — The traditional Himalayan system of medicine practised in Ladakh and recognised under AYUSH.
19 October 2026
The National Human Rights Commission announced the ten winners of its Human Rights Quiz-2026, held with MyGov ahead of the Commission's 33rd Foundation Day. The quiz, titled Celebrating Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity, ran from 1 September to 10 October 2026 and covered human rights, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and the Commission's functions, powers and duties. Participants answered up to 15 questions in 300 seconds. The page recorded 1,67,127 views and 26,459 submissions, with 5,753 participants scoring 15 out of 15. Most submissions came from the 18 to 24 age group, and Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu led participation. Aarti Mahajan won the first prize of Rs. 15,000, Ritika the second of Rs. 10,000 and Tooba Benazeer the third of Rs. 5,000, with seven consolation prizes of Rs. 2,000 each. The ten winners were picked by a draw of lots by the MyGov team.
Submissions:
26,459
Perfect scores:
5,753
First prize:
Rs. 15,000
Foundation Day:
33rd
Why it matters for exams: The item carries the Commission's Foundation Day number and the 1993 Act that created it, both standard exam facts.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
NHRC National Human Rights Commission — The statutory commission set up under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 to inquire into human rights violations.
MyGov MyGov — The Union government's citizen engagement platform that hosts public consultations, quizzes and contests.
19 October 2026
Mera Yuva Bharat held 1,174 programmes across 36 States and Union Territories in the fifth week of the Nasha Mukt Yuva for Viksit Bharat Abhiyan, part of a 100 Weeks Campaign under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The week's events were held on 17 October 2026 on two themes: Yoga and Meditation for Nasha Mukt Yuva, and a Neighbourhood Youth Parliament discussion titled Nasha Mukt Yuva for Viksit Bharat Par Charcha. The ministry recorded 3,43,288 youth and citizens taking part and the same number of pledges taken, across 3,380 activities. Partner organisations included Heartfulness, Project Point, CIPU, ASSOCHAM, FICCI, CII and Brahma Kumaris.
Programmes:
1,174
Participants:
3,43,288
Activities:
3,380
Coverage:
36 States and UTs
Why it matters for exams: National campaigns with named implementing bodies and reach figures are routine objective-question material.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
MY Bharat Mera Yuva Bharat — An autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports that acts as a platform for youth volunteering and development.
19 October 2026
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence seized about 7.1 kg of amphetamine and about 3.1 kg of cocaine in three separate operations and arrested three people. On 14 October 2026 officers intercepted a passenger arriving at Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru from Delhi and recovered about 5.166 kg of amphetamine. Two days later about 1.97 kg of amphetamine was seized from a bus passenger travelling from Delhi to Hyderabad at Khapa Phata, Saoner, on the outskirts of Nagpur. About 3.134 kg of cocaine was recovered at Terminal 3 of Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi, from a passenger arriving from Ghana. One person was arrested in each operation.
Amphetamine seized:
About 7.1 kg
Cocaine seized:
About 3.1 kg
Arrests:
Three
Why it matters for exams: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence and its parent board are standard questions on central enforcement agencies.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
DRI Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — The apex anti-smuggling intelligence and investigation agency under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs.
19 October 2026
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment published an account of the National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students scheme. Shrikant Dilip Khandare, a scholar from Solapur in Maharashtra, received Rs 9.90 lakh in total assistance, including fellowship support and House Rent Allowance. The support began in October 2019 after he qualified the CSIR-UGC National Eligibility Test in June 2018. His doctoral research dealt with sustainable solutions to environmental problems, in particular plastic waste and pollution. The ministry said family financial instability had threatened his studies and that the fellowship allowed him to complete the Ph.D. The scheme provides fellowship assistance to eligible Scheduled Caste students pursuing research degrees.
Total assistance:
Rs 9.90 lakh
Support began:
October 2019
Qualifying test:
CSIR-UGC NET, June 2018
Why it matters for exams: Named central fellowship schemes for Scheduled Caste students and their funding components are asked in welfare-scheme questions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
NFSC National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students — A central scheme that funds Scheduled Caste students doing M.Phil and Ph.D research, including a house rent component.
19 October 2026
Union Home Minister Amit Shah will pay homage to police personnel at the National Police Memorial at Chanakyapuri, New Delhi, on Police Commemoration Day, 21 October 2026. He will flag off a nationwide motorcycle rally on the theme Fight Against Drugs with about 90 police riders drawn from Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh and Delhi, and from the CRPF, CISF, BSF, SSB, ITBP, NSG, RPF, NDRF and NIA. Riders from all States and Union Territories and central forces will reach Ekta Nagar in Gujarat for the Ekta Parade on 31 October 2026. The day marks 21 October 1959, when ten policemen were killed in an ambush at Hot Springs in Ladakh. Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated the National Police Memorial to the nation on Police Commemoration Day in 2018. The memorial has a 30-foot granite central sculpture, a Wall of Valour with the names of police personnel killed since Independence, and a museum on policing in India.
Date:
21 October 2026
Riders:
About 90
Origin:
21 October 1959, Hot Springs, Ladakh
Central sculpture:
30-foot granite monolith
Why it matters for exams: The 1959 Hot Springs ambush, the date of Police Commemoration Day and the National Police Memorial are frequently asked together.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
CAPF Central Armed Police Forces — The central forces under the Ministry of Home Affairs, including the CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, SSB and NSG.
19 October 2026
Union Minister of State Jitendra Singh inaugurated a workplace creche and a blood donation camp at Kartavya Bhawan-3 in New Delhi. The creche covers over 2,000 square feet and can take about 30 to 35 children; 27 children were already enrolled. It will be managed by Grih Kalyan Kendra, a society linked to the Department of Personnel and Training, which runs around six other creche facilities in Delhi, and follows the guidelines of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. The non-governmental organisation Mobile Creches is partnering Grih Kalyan Kendra on training teachers and caregivers. More than 100 people enrolled for the blood donation camp. The department also reported replacing 18 diesel and petrol vehicles with electric vehicles. Rachna Shah, Secretary of the Department of Personnel and Training, was present.
Creche area:
Over 2,000 sq. ft.
Capacity:
About 30 to 35 children
Already enrolled:
27 children
Vehicles replaced:
18
Why it matters for exams: Creche provision under Women and Child Development guidelines and the role of Grih Kalyan Kendra are useful governance and welfare facts.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
DoPT Department of Personnel and Training — The department in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions that handles central government service matters.
19 October 2026
The Reserve Bank of India extended the directions issued to The Konark Urban Co-operative Bank Ltd., Ulhasnagar, for a further three months. The directions, issued under Section 35A read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, will now run from the close of business on 23 October 2026 to the close of business on 23 January 2027. The original directive was issued on 23 April 2024 for six months up to the close of business on 23 October 2024, and had earlier been extended to 23 October 2026 by a directive dated 15 July 2026. The Reserve Bank said the extension is in the public interest and is subject to review, that all other terms of the original directive remain unchanged, and that the extension does not mean it is satisfied with the bank's financial position. The press release is numbered 2026-2027/1353 and is signed by Chief General Manager Brij Raj.
Extension:
Three months
New end date:
23 January 2027
Provision:
Section 35A read with Section 56, Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Why it matters for exams: Section 35A read with Section 56 is the standard provision cited whenever the Reserve Bank restrains a co-operative bank.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Section 35A Section 35A, Banking Regulation Act, 1949 — The provision that lets the Reserve Bank issue binding directions to a banking company in the public interest.
16 October 2026
The Reserve Bank of India sanctioned a Scheme of Amalgamation of the Indian branches of Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C. with RBL Bank Limited. The sanction was given under sub-section (4) of Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The scheme takes effect from 1 December 2026, and from that date the Indian branches of Emirates NBD Bank will function as branches of RBL Bank. The press release is numbered 2026-2027/1342 and is signed by Chief General Manager Brij Raj. Emirates NBD Bank is the transferor and RBL Bank is the transferee under the scheme.
Transferor:
Indian branches of Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C.
Transferee:
RBL Bank Limited
Effective date:
1 December 2026
Provision:
Section 44A(4), Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Why it matters for exams: Section 44A is the amalgamation provision of the Banking Regulation Act and is asked whenever two banks merge.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Section 44A Section 44A, Banking Regulation Act, 1949 — The provision under which the Reserve Bank sanctions a scheme of amalgamation of banking companies.
19 October 2026
The Supreme Court held that a private individual may file a criminal complaint against an elected candidate under Section 125A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which punishes a candidate who knowingly furnishes false information or conceals information in a nomination paper or affidavit. The bench of Justice Dipankar Datta, who wrote the judgment, and Justice Sheel Nagu held that the bar in Section 195(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which requires a complaint by a public servant for certain offences, does not apply. The Court noted that Section 125A is not listed in Section 195 and treated the omission as deliberate, since Section 125A was introduced in 2002 and Section 195 was amended in 2006. It also relied on the opening words of Section 125A, which operate notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, and said Election Commission guidelines and press notes do not bind courts interpreting a statute. The case is Rajkumar Madki versus Dr. Shailendra Beldale, reported as 2026 LiveLaw (SC) 1069. The Court rejected the High Court's reasoning but upheld its order quashing the complaint, finding the claim about the candidate's residential address prima facie rebutted by the documents on record.
Provision:
Section 125A, Representation of the People Act, 1951
Bench:
Justice Dipankar Datta and Justice Sheel Nagu
Section 125A introduced:
2002
Section 195 CrPC amended:
2006
Why it matters for exams: Section 125A of the Representation of the People Act and the Section 195 CrPC bar are core election-law provisions for prelims and mains.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Section 125A Section 125A, Representation of the People Act, 1951 — It punishes a candidate who knowingly files false information or conceals information in a nomination paper or affidavit.
19 October 2026
The Karnataka High Court held that an advocate who continues to practise without clearing the All India Bar Examination within the mandatory two-year period can face criminal liability under the Indian Penal Code and the Advocates Act, 1961. Justice H. P. Sandesh held that the existence of a disciplinary mechanism before a Bar Council does not by itself extinguish the jurisdiction of a competent criminal court, and that a complainant need not approach the Karnataka State Bar Council first. The Court directed that the jurisdictional police may proceed and file a report before the trial court, with the investigating officer examining whether the conduct attracts Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code and Section 45 of the Advocates Act, 1961. It also directed the Karnataka State Bar Council to devise a mechanism to track advocates who do not clear the examination within two years, so that non-compliance is flagged automatically. The petition in M. Prasanna Kumar versus State of Karnataka, Criminal Petition No. 633 of 2020, was dismissed. The Court described the conduct as an offence against society at large, that is, against the institution.
Court:
Karnataka High Court
Judge:
Justice H. P. Sandesh
Provisions examined:
Section 420 IPC and Section 45, Advocates Act, 1961
Case:
Criminal Petition No. 633 of 2020
Why it matters for exams: The two-year All India Bar Examination requirement, Section 45 of the Advocates Act and the Bar Council's disciplinary role are standard legal-awareness points.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
AIBE All India Bar Examination — The examination a law graduate must clear to hold a certificate of practice, conducted by the Bar Council of India.
Section 45 Section 45, Advocates Act, 1961 — It makes it punishable for a person to practise as an advocate when not entitled to do so.
Background
Article 148 says there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
The Comptroller and Auditor-General can be removed only in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, and takes an oath in the form set out in the Third Schedule.
The administrative expenses of the office, including salaries, allowances and pensions, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
After leaving office the Comptroller and Auditor-General is not eligible for further office under the Government of India or under any State Government.
Article 149 settles the duties and powers, Article 150 says the accounts of the Union and the States are kept in the form the President prescribes on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor-General, and Article 151 requires Union audit reports to go to the President and be laid before each House of Parliament, and State reports to the Governor and the State Legislature.
Under the Comptroller and Auditor-General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, the holder has a term of six years, or until the age of sixty-five, whichever is earlier.
Constitutional articles:
Articles 148 to 151
Term:
six years or age sixty-five
Office expenses:
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India
Governing statute:
DPC Act, 1971
Why it matters for exams: The audit chapter of the Constitution is a standing favourite, and examiners test the exact articles, the removal procedure and the tenure together.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
Consolidated Fund of India Consolidated Fund of India — The main government account into which all revenues flow and from which spending needs parliamentary authorisation.
DPC Act Comptroller and Auditor-General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act — The law Parliament passed to fix the auditor's duties, powers and service conditions.