16 October 2026
The 121st issue of Sarvekshana, the bi-annual Journal of Official Statistics, was released by the National Statistical Systems Training Academy of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
The journal disseminates research based on National Sample Survey data and other official statistics and is circulated among researchers, ministries and national and international institutions.
The issue carries three peer-reviewed technical papers.
They cover the impact of in-kind social transfers on the level of living of Indian households, the role of factory size in efficiency using Annual Survey of Industries 2022-23 data, and a simulation study on adopting PPS circular systematic sampling in the Annual Survey of Industries.
The issue also presents highlights of the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025 and the Periodic Labour Force Survey 2025, both covering January to December 2025.
Issue:
121st
Technical papers:
3
Surveys highlighted:
ASUSE 2025 and PLFS 2025
Why it matters for exams: Sarvekshana, NSSTA and the surveys MoSPI runs are regularly tested in statistics and economy sections.
Kerala PSCUPSCBank
In plain words
NSSTA National Statistical Systems Training Academy — The MoSPI academy that trains statistical personnel and publishes Sarvekshana.
ASUSE Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises — A survey of India's unincorporated non-agricultural enterprises.
16 October 2026
The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas has made pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ) camera based remote monitoring compulsory for all industries covered by its statutory Direction No. 98. The order supersedes the Commission's earlier order dated 05.10.2026. It covers the 17 categories of highly polluting industries identified by the Central Pollution Control Board, medium and large Red Category air-polluting units, food, food processing and textile units running boilers or thermic fluid heaters, and metal industries with furnaces. Cameras must cover fuel feeding and charging points, gas meters and metering arrangements, stack emission and OCEMS sampling or port-hole locations, and fume extraction areas, with enough cameras to avoid significant blind spots. Live video must be streamed over Real Time Streaming Protocol (RTSP) to designated CPCB and State Pollution Control Board or DPCC servers and portals. Industries must comply by 30.11.2026, and the governments of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and the GNCTD are to help implement the order.
Direction number:
Direction No. 98
Compliance deadline:
30.11.2026
Order superseded:
Order dated 05.10.2026
Streaming protocol:
Real Time Streaming Protocol (RTSP)
Why it matters for exams: CAQM is a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament and its directions are a standard question on air pollution governance in the NCR.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
CAQM Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas — A statutory commission that issues binding directions on air quality in Delhi and the neighbouring states.
OCEMS Online Continuous Emission Monitoring System — Equipment that continuously measures a plant's stack emissions and transmits the readings to regulators.
16 October 2026
The All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), New Delhi, released a decadal report on its foundation day. It says 37,74,524 patients were treated across its healthcare network between October 2016 and September 2026. About 30,37,077 of them were seen at the main Sarita Vihar campus in New Delhi, which handles roughly 3,000 outpatients a day and runs a 200-bed inpatient department. Affiliated and outreach centres accounted for about 7.37 lakh patients; these include a satellite centre in Goa, Safdarjung Hospital, UPSC Building, the National Cancer Institute at Jhajjar, the IAS training centre at Mussoorie and a centre at Kevadia, Ekta Nagar. Director Prof. (Vaidya) P. K. Prajapati said patient numbers rose from about 1.23 lakh in 2020 to over 5.40 lakh by September 2026. AIIA is an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Ayush.
Total patients:
37,74,524
Period:
October 2016 to September 2026
Main campus patients:
about 30,37,077
Inpatient beds:
200
Director:
Prof. (Vaidya) P. K. Prajapati
Why it matters for exams: AIIA is the apex Ayush institute and its figures are quoted in questions on India's traditional medicine infrastructure.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
AIIA All India Institute of Ayurveda — An autonomous apex Ayurveda institute at Sarita Vihar, New Delhi, under the Ministry of Ayush.
16 October 2026
The National Highways Authority of India successfully defended an arbitration claim relating to the six-laning of the 93.5 km Chittorgarh-Udaipur section of NH-76 in Rajasthan. A three-member Arbitral Tribunal constituted under the Society for Affordable Redressal of Disputes (SAROD) substantially upheld NHAI's position. The concessionaire, Uchit Expressway Private Limited, promoted by TRIL Roads Pvt. Ltd., had claims of Rs. 366.53 crore rejected, including a prolongation cost claim of Rs. 238.18 crore linked to COVID-19. Claims of Rs. 14.51 crore were allowed along with a conditional refund of Rs. 2.82 crore. The Tribunal awarded NHAI counter-claims of Rs. 33.54 crore as principal, made up of Rs. 27 crore for work dropped from the project scope, Rs. 4.03 crore for failure to maintain the highway and Rs. 2.51 crore for toll collected without authorisation after the project's completion date in March 2021.
Project length:
93.5 km
Highway:
NH-76, Chittorgarh-Udaipur section
Claims rejected:
Rs. 366.53 crore
COVID-19 prolongation claim rejected:
Rs. 238.18 crore
NHAI counter-claims awarded:
Rs. 33.54 crore
Why it matters for exams: SAROD is the sector-specific arbitration body for highway disputes, and the case shows how concession contracts and COVID-19 prolongation claims are settled.
UPSCBank
In plain words
SAROD Society for Affordable Redressal of Disputes — A society set up to arbitrate disputes in highway concession and construction contracts.
Concessionaire Concessionaire — The private company that builds and operates a highway stretch under a concession agreement with NHAI.
16 October 2026
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment set out the progress of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY). Over 47,200 villages have been covered and 18,093 were declared Adarsh Grams as on 8 September 2026, benefiting more than 47.79 lakh citizens. A total of 46,944 development works have been completed and 27,032 Village Development Plans prepared. About Rs 1,730 crore in grants-in-aid was released directly to States for the years 2021-22 to 2025-26, supporting over 2.5 lakh individual and group beneficiaries. As of September 2026, 785 student hostels had been completed, and Rs 61.46 crore was allocated for 2026-27 for two hostel projects, one for girls and one for boys, accommodating 264 students. PM-AJAY has three components: developing Scheduled Caste dominated villages into Adarsh Grams, grants-in-aid for socio-economic projects at State and district level, and construction and repair of hostels. The scheme is 100 per cent centrally funded, with States and Union Territories free to supplement it.
Adarsh Grams declared:
18,093 as on September 8, 2026
Villages covered:
over 47,200
Grants-in-aid released:
about Rs 1,730 crore (FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26)
Hostels completed:
785 as of September 2026
Funding pattern:
100% centrally funded
Why it matters for exams: PM-AJAY merged three older schemes and its three components and funding pattern are frequently asked in welfare scheme questions.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
PM-AJAY Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana — A centrally funded scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment for Scheduled Caste development through Adarsh Grams, grants-in-aid and hostels.
16 October 2026
A two-day National Conference on e-Governance Reforms began at Dharamshala in Himachal Pradesh, organised by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, with Himachal Pradesh as host. Day one carried the focus 'Digital Innovation, Emerging Technologies and Citizen-Centric Governance'. The inaugural session was addressed by DARPG Secretary Smt. Nivedita Shukla Verma, Himachal Pradesh Chief Secretary Shri Kamlesh Kumar Pant and Chief Minister Shri Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu. Shri Puneet Yadav, Additional Secretary, DARPG, gave the vote of thanks. Himachal Pradesh presented five state initiatives: Him Parivar, Sukhashraya, Vidya Samiksha Kendra, Green Himachal and the Rajiv Gandhi Van Samvardhan Yojna. Initiatives recognised under the National Awards for e-Governance and the Prime Minister's Awards were also presented, among them AgriStack, e-Jagriti, the AI-enabled Clinical Decision Support System of e-Sanjeevani, the Multi Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System, iGOT Karmayogi, eAarogya Dhamni, the District Court Case Management System, ICMR-MINDS, the India Hypertension Control Initiative and Digi Yatra.
Venue:
Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh
Organiser:
DARPG, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Day one focus:
Digital Innovation, Emerging Technologies and Citizen-Centric Governance
Duration:
Two days
Why it matters for exams: DARPG is the nodal department for administrative reform and the National Awards for e-Governance, and state initiatives named here recur in governance questions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
DARPG Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances — The nodal department for administrative reform, public grievance redress and the National Awards for e-Governance.
16 October 2026
The Union Public Service Commission declared the results of the Combined Geo-Scientist Examination, 2026. The examination was held in three stages: Stage-I (Preliminary) on 8 February 2026, Stage-II (Main) on 20 and 21 June 2026, and the Personality Test in September 2026. For Geologist, Group 'A', there were 21 vacancies and 20 candidates were recommended, including 7 PwBD-1 and 1 PwBD-3 candidates; one PwBD-3 vacancy was carried forward as no PwBD-3 candidate was available. For Scientist 'B' (Hydrogeology), Group 'A' and Assistant Hydrogeologist, Group 'B' together there were 23 vacancies and 22 recommendations. For Geophysicist, Group 'A', Scientist 'B' (Geophysics), Group 'A' and Assistant Geophysicist, Group 'B' there were 5 vacancies and 4 recommendations. Chemist, Group 'A' had 16 vacancies and 16 recommendations, Scientist 'B' (Chemical), Group 'A' had 2 and 2, and Assistant Chemist, Group 'B' had 2 and 2. Reserve lists of two candidates each were drawn up for the Hydrogeology and Geophysics streams.
Preliminary stage:
8 February 2026
Main stage:
20 and 21 June 2026
Personality Test:
September 2026
Geologist vacancies:
21, with 20 recommended
Chemist, Group 'A':
16 vacancies, 16 recommended
Why it matters for exams: The Combined Geo-Scientist Examination is one of the UPSC's technical recruitments and its three-stage structure is itself examinable.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
UPSC Union Public Service Commission — The constitutional body that conducts recruitment examinations for the Union's civil and technical services.
PwBD Persons with Benchmark Disabilities — A reservation category in government recruitment for candidates with specified disabilities.
16 October 2026
Union Minister of Culture and Tourism Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat will present the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar for the years 2024 and 2025 on 19 October 2026 at 10 a.m. at the Meghdoot Complex, Rabindra Bhavan, New Delhi. The award goes to 106 young artists in the fields of music, dance and drama, selected unanimously by the General Council of the Sangeet Natak Akademi at its meeting held from 22 to 26 March 2026. Each award carries a cash prize of Rs. 25,000, a Tamrapatra and an Angavastram. Shri Vivek Aggarwal, Secretary, Ministry of Culture, will be the Guest of Honour, and Dr. Sandhya Purecha, Chairman of the Sangeet Natak Akademi, will preside. The Akademi instituted the award in 2006 for artists up to the age of 40 and has presented it annually since.
Number of awardees:
106
Years covered:
2024 and 2025
Cash prize:
Rs. 25,000, with a Tamrapatra and an Angavastram
Ceremony:
19 October 2026, Meghdoot Complex, Rabindra Bhavan, New Delhi
Instituted:
2006, for artists up to the age of 40
Why it matters for exams: Sangeet Natak Akademi awards and their cash components are standard art and culture questions, and this one has an age ceiling that is often tested.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
Sangeet Natak Akademi Sangeet Natak Akademi — India's national academy for music, dance and drama, which confers the Akademi Awards and the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar.
16 October 2026
The Reserve Bank of India has approved the amalgamation of the Indian branches of Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C. with RBL Bank Limited. Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C. is the transferor bank and RBL Bank Limited is the transferee bank. The scheme of amalgamation has been sanctioned under sub-section (4) of Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The scheme comes into force with effect from December 1, 2026, and from that date the Indian branches of Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C. will function as branches of RBL Bank Limited. The press release, numbered 2026-2027/1342, was issued over the signature of Brij Raj, Chief General Manager.
Transferor bank:
Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C.
Transferee bank:
RBL Bank Limited
Legal provision:
Sub-section (4) of Section 44A, Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Effective date:
December 1, 2026
Why it matters for exams: Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is the provision under which banking company amalgamations are sanctioned, and the RBI's role in it is frequently asked.
Kerala PSCUPSCBank
In plain words
Section 44A Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 — The provision that governs voluntary amalgamation of banking companies and requires the Reserve Bank to sanction the scheme.
16 October 2026
The Reserve Bank of India announced the auction of Government of India Treasury Bills. The notified amounts are Rs 8,000 crore of 91-Day Treasury Bills, Rs 8,000 crore of 182-Day Treasury Bills and Rs 7,000 crore of 364-Day Treasury Bills, a total of Rs 23,000 crore. The auction date is October 21, 2026, a Wednesday, and settlement is on October 22, 2026, a Thursday. The sale is subject to the General Notification F.No.4(2)-B(W&M)/2018 dated March 26, 2025 issued by the Government of India, as amended from time to time. The auction will be price based using the multiple price method, and bids must be submitted electronically on the Reserve Bank's Core Banking Solution, the E-Kuber system. State Governments, Union Territories with legislature, eligible Provident Funds in India, designated Foreign Central Banks and specified persons or institutions may participate on a non-competitive basis, with that allocation kept outside the notified amount. Individuals may also bid on a non-competitive basis as retail investors, for whom the allocation is restricted to a maximum of 5 per cent of the notified amount, and they may bid through the Retail Direct portal.
91-Day Treasury Bills:
₹8,000 crore
182-Day Treasury Bills:
₹8,000 crore
364-Day Treasury Bills:
₹7,000 crore
Total notified amount:
₹23,000 crore
Auction date:
October 21, 2026
Retail investor cap:
maximum 5 per cent of the notified amount
Why it matters for exams: Treasury Bills are the Union government's short-term money market instrument and the three standard maturities, the multiple price method and the E-Kuber platform are all examinable.
UPSCBank
In plain words
E-Kuber E-Kuber — The Reserve Bank's Core Banking Solution, on which bids for government securities auctions are submitted electronically.
Treasury Bill Treasury Bill — A short-term debt instrument of the Government of India issued at a discount, with 91, 182 and 364 day maturities.
16 October 2026
The Reserve Bank of India's Bulletin Weekly Statistical Supplement puts India's total foreign exchange reserves as on October 9, 2026 at ₹70,22,417 crore, or US$ 726,027 million. Total reserves fell by US$ 8,578 million over the week. Foreign currency assets stood at US$ 597,605 million, down US$ 7,142 million over the week. Gold reserves were US$ 105,094 million, down US$ 1,319 million, and Special Drawing Rights were US$ 18,548 million. Against end-March 2026, total reserves were higher by US$ 34,920 million, and against the same week a year earlier they were higher by US$ 28,244 million. The Supplement also reports loans and advances to State Governments at ₹58,569 crore as on October 9, 2026. The data are provisional, and any difference is due to rounding off.
Total reserves:
US$ 726,027 million (₹70,22,417 crore) as on October 9, 2026
Weekly change:
down US$ 8,578 million
Foreign currency assets:
US$ 597,605 million
Gold:
US$ 105,094 million
SDRs:
US$ 18,548 million
Why it matters for exams: The four components of India's foreign exchange reserves and the weekly Reserve Bank release that reports them are a standing question in banking and economy papers.
Kerala PSCUPSCBank
In plain words
SDR Special Drawing Rights — An international reserve asset allocated to member countries, counted as one component of a country's foreign exchange reserves.
WSS Weekly Statistical Supplement — A weekly Reserve Bank publication carrying the central bank's balance sheet items and reserve data.
16 October 2026
Eight countries launched plans with the World Bank Group in Bangkok to turn their mineral resources into jobs and economic growth. The eight are Argentina, Bolivia, Egypt, India, Kazakhstan, Malawi, Mauritania and Zambia. India and Argentina entered partnerships, while Bolivia, Egypt, Kazakhstan, Malawi, Mauritania and Zambia announced compacts; the World Bank Group calls the framework Metals and Minerals Country Compacts and Partnerships. India's partnership aims to mobilise US$5 billion in capital through 2031. Kazakhstan's aims to mobilise up to $20 billion by 2031, Egypt is targeting a 6 per cent minerals contribution to GDP by 2030 and $9.8 billion in metals and minerals-related exports by 2040, and Zambia is targeting annual copper production of 3 million metric tonnes by 2031 under its Grow Zambia Agenda. The World Bank Group said it would increase its metals and minerals support fivefold, to $19 billion between FY26 and FY30. Dr. Neelkanth Mishra, Executive Director of the World Bank Group representing Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Sri Lanka, spoke at the launch.
Number of countries:
8
India's target:
mobilize US$5 billion in capital through 2031
World Bank Group support:
fivefold increase to $19 billion between FY26 and FY30
Launch venue:
Bangkok
Zambia's copper target:
3 million metric tonnes a year by 2031
Why it matters for exams: Critical minerals diplomacy is a live theme, and India's place in a World Bank country-compact framework with named dollar targets is directly examinable.
UPSCBank
In plain words
Mining Country Compacts Mining Country Compacts — World Bank Group arrangements under which a country sets out a plan to convert its mineral resources into jobs and growth.
MIGA Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency — The World Bank Group member that offers political risk insurance and credit enhancement to investors.