14 October 2026
Governor Lieutenant General Gurmit Singh (Retd.) inaugurated the programme 'Uttarakhand Deep-Tech 2030: Building Technology for the Mountains' at Lok Bhavan, Dehradun, on 10 October 2026.
The stated aim is to use artificial intelligence and deep technologies for border security, disaster management, education and livelihoods, and to promote innovation, skill development and entrepreneurship among young people.
Three panel discussions were held: on defence and Himalayan security, on education and youth, and on creativity, startups and the AI economy.
The Governor said technology must reach remote villages and not only large cities, and listed education, healthcare, agriculture, tourism, disaster management and governance as fields for AI.
He also pointed to deepfakes, misinformation and misuse of personal data as reasons for responsible use, and said AI should enhance human capability rather than replace it.
Secretary Pankaj Kumar Pandey and Additional Secretary Reena Joshi were among the officials present.
Venue:
Lok Bhavan, Dehradun
Panel discussions:
3
Why it matters for exams: State-level deep-technology and AI initiatives are frequently asked about under science and technology and governance.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Deep tech Deep technology — Technology built on substantial scientific or engineering advances, such as artificial intelligence, robotics and advanced materials.
14 October 2026
A press communique issued from Rashtrapati Bhavan on 12.10.2026 announced six gubernatorial appointments made by the President of India.
Dr. Dhal Singh Bisen was appointed Governor of Uttarakhand.
In the same communique Shri Om Prakash Mathur, Governor of Sikkim, was appointed Governor of Keralam, and Shri Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar, Governor of Keralam, was appointed Governor of Tamil Nadu.
Shri Braj Mohan Ram was appointed Governor of Odisha, Dr. Sudha Yadav Governor of Karnataka and Shri Dushyant Gautam Governor of Sikkim.
The communique states that the appointments will take effect from the dates the appointees assume charge of their respective offices.
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President under Article 155 of the Constitution.
Date of press communique:
12.10.2026
Appointments announced:
6
New Governor of Uttarakhand:
Dr. Dhal Singh Bisen
Why it matters for exams: Gubernatorial changes and the constitutional provision behind them are a standing favourite in polity and current-affairs papers.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Article 155 Article 155 of the Constitution of India — It provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
14 October 2026
The European Data Protection Board published a statement on the data protection challenges of smart glasses on 13 October 2026, after its latest plenary.
The statement is an initial, preliminary guidance for users, manufacturers and service providers.
It says recording should be made obvious, for example through bright LED lights, audio signals, voice activation cues, privacy-friendly smartphone notifications or distinctive designs, and that warnings must be reliable, hard to ignore and always up to date.
The board says a wearer becomes a data controller when they share photos or videos on a public social media account, or use the glasses in official, professional or political activity. Purely personal use, such as filming family or friends, falls under the household exemption in the GDPR.
Producers and providers of linked apps and services cannot transfer their own obligations to users.
EDPB Chair Anu Talus said individuals deserve clear warnings, not hidden surprises.
An accompanying report titled The connected gaze was commissioned through the board's Support Pool of Experts after a proposal by the French data protection authority.
Issuing body:
European Data Protection Board
Date:
13 October 2026
Chair:
Anu Talus
Accompanying report:
The connected gaze
Why it matters for exams: The GDPR, the EDPB and the idea of a data controller are standard polity and technology topics.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
EDPB European Data Protection Board — An independent EU body that brings together national data protection authorities and ensures the GDPR is applied consistently.
GDPR General Data Protection Regulation — The European Union's data protection law, in force since 2018.
Data controller Data controller — The person or body that decides why and how personal data is processed, and therefore carries the legal duties.
14 October 2026
A Supreme Court bench of Justice Vikram Nath and Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh ordered that further proceedings before the trial court shall remain stayed.
The case is Rahul Gandhi v. State of Maharashtra, SLP (Crl) No. 19559 of 2026.
The complaint was filed by a BJP worker before a Metropolitan Magistrate over remarks made about Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The Magistrate had issued process under Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code, which punishes defamation.
The Bombay High Court had declined to quash the case by an order of 8 September.
The Supreme Court issued notice returnable in four weeks.
Bench:
Justice Vikram Nath and Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh
Case:
SLP (Crl) No. 19559 of 2026
Provision:
Section 500, Indian Penal Code
Notice:
Returnable in four weeks
Why it matters for exams: Criminal defamation under Section 500 IPC and the Supreme Court's power to stay proceedings under Article 136 are standard polity questions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
SLP Special Leave Petition — A petition under Article 136 of the Constitution asking the Supreme Court for leave to appeal against any judgment or order.
14 October 2026
Justice G. Girish of the Kerala High Court has allowed a revision petition filed by the parents of violinist Balabhaskar and ordered further investigation into his death.
The Court directed the CBI to entrust the further investigation to an officer of proven integrity, not below the rank of Additional Superintendent of Police.
The order, in K.C. Unni and Anr. v. State of Kerala and Ors., Crl.R.P. No. 214/2026, records that the agency treated earlier directions of 2022 in a casual and lackadaisical manner by deputing an Inspector for the further probe.
The Court held that the approach taken was inconsistent with Section 173(8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which governs further investigation.
A coordinate bench had in 2022 pointed to twenty suspicious circumstances and ordered a further probe, including into whether a conspiracy lay behind the accident.
The car accident took place on 25 September 2018 while the family was returning from a temple in Thrissur; the couple's one-and-a-half-year-old daughter died at the scene and Balabhaskar died about a week later.
Case:
Crl.R.P. No. 214/2026
Judge:
Justice G. Girish
Minimum rank of new investigator:
Additional Superintendent of Police
Date of the accident:
25 September 2018
Why it matters for exams: A clear illustration of the High Court's supervisory power over further investigation under Section 173(8) CrPC.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Section 173(8) CrPC Section 173(8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 — The provision that permits further investigation after a report has been filed.
14 October 2026
Justice A. Badharudeen of the Kerala High Court has said that the Kerala Public Service Commission's petition to quash the Crime Branch FIR did not require the investigation to be halted, as the Court has granted no stay.
The Crime Branch told the Court that ten questions carrying a total of 58 marks were left unevaluated, and that a later revaluation changed the rankings in the list.
The PSC sought more time to respond to the Crime Branch report, and the matter is to be taken up again after two days. Investigators are also examining the role of other PSC employees, and more than 150 complaints have been placed before the Special Investigation Team.
The recruitment concerned is for the post of Chief (Industry and Infrastructure Division) in the State Planning Board, notified in 2022, with a shortlist of ten candidates published in February 2025.
Earlier, on 5 October, the same judge asked the PSC why it was not cooperating with the investigation and questioned the maintainability of its writ petition; the Commission's counsel described the lapse as a clerical error caused by a computer problem.
Questions left unevaluated:
10
Marks involved:
58 marks
Complaints before the SIT:
More than 150
Judge:
Justice A. Badharudeen
Why it matters for exams: A live test of how far a constitutional recruitment body is open to criminal investigation, directly relevant to PSC aspirants.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
FIR First Information Report — The first written record of information about a cognizable offence, registered by the police.
SIT Special Investigation Team — A team constituted to investigate a specific case or group of cases.
14 October 2026
A Division Bench of Chief Justice Soumen Sen and Justice Syam Kumar V.M. has directed the Union Government to review the proposal for an All India Institute of Medical Sciences in Kerala and take necessary steps.
The direction came in WP(C) 18550/2024, AIIMS Kasargod Janakeeya Koottayma v Union of India and Ors., and a connected case, which seek an AIIMS for the State under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY).
The Deputy Solicitor General told the Court that the proposal is at the consultation stage, that a decision can follow only once the Government decides whether to continue PMSSY for the next five years, and that States with weaker healthcare infrastructure are being prioritised.
The Bench asked which criteria Kerala fails to meet, noted that AIIMS institutions exist in affluent parts of the country, and said it was not satisfied with the criteria placed before it.
It recorded that the proposal has been pending with the Ministry for almost ten years with little substantial progress beyond correspondence.
A memorandum seeking an AIIMS in Kozhikode district was submitted to the Union Health Minister; the matter has been posted after six weeks.
Case:
WP(C) 18550/2024
Scheme:
Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
Proposal pending for:
Almost 10 years
Next hearing:
After six weeks
Why it matters for exams: Connects a Kerala-specific demand with the national PMSSY framework for AIIMS institutions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
PMSSY Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana — The central scheme under which new AIIMS institutions are set up and government medical colleges upgraded.
14 October 2026
A Division Bench of Chief Justice Soumen Sen and Justice Syam Kumar V.M. has directed the Keralam government to give priority to a proposal to create 229 new posts in the State's consumer disputes redressal commissions.
The order was passed in Adv. J. Surya v. State of Kerala & Ors., W.P.(PIL) No. 53 of 2026, which raised the shortage of manpower and infrastructure that has left orders of the commissions unexecuted.
The Court recorded that an administrative sanction of Rs 1 crore was issued on 5 October 2026 for the scheme 'Modernisation and Strengthening of State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission and District Commissions'.
The Finance Department has sought a work study, details of permanent and temporary posts in the commissions and the source of funds before taking a final decision; the Court gave the State three weeks to furnish these particulars.
The Bench observed that it is the responsibility of the State Government to ensure that all required infrastructural facilities are provided in time.
The case has been posted to 2 December 2026.
New posts proposed:
229
Administrative sanction:
Rs. 1 crore (5 October 2026)
Time given to the State:
Three weeks
Next hearing:
2 December 2026
Why it matters for exams: Links consumer protection machinery with State administrative capacity, a recurring governance theme.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
PIL Public Interest Litigation — A petition filed in the public interest rather than for a personal grievance.
14 October 2026
The Keralam Home Department issued an order on October 8 sanctioning Rs 12.5 lakh as compensation to K K Surendran, who was a senior lecturer at the District Institute of Education and Training (DIET), Sulthan Bathery, in Wayanad.
The order directs the State Police Chief to release the amount to Surendran and to recover it from the personal assets of two former officers of the Sulthan Bathery police station, former Sub Inspector P Viswambaran and former Circle Inspector V Devaraj, jointly and severally.
Surendran was taken into custody on February 22, 2003, days after the February 19, 2003 police eviction operation at the Muthanga Wildlife Sanctuary, where Adivasi families led by the Adivasi Gothra Maha Sabha had set up shelters demanding land.
He was named in three criminal cases, received a clean chit from the CBI and was excluded from all three.
He had sued for Rs 15,00,647. The Sub Court, Sulthan Bathery, awarded Rs 5 lakh with 3 per cent annual interest; the Additional District Court-II, Kalpetta, dismissed the appeals of the State and the two officers and enhanced the award to Rs 12.5 lakh with 6 per cent annual interest.
The government decided to comply with the decree instead of filing further appeals.
Compensation:
Rs 12.5 lakh
Order issued by:
Home Department, October 8
Amount originally claimed:
Rs 15,00,647
Muthanga eviction:
February 19, 2003
Why it matters for exams: A rare instance of a State government recovering compensation for custodial torture from the personal assets of the officers held responsible.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
DIET District Institute of Education and Training — A district-level teacher education institution.
Background
The Farakka Barrage Project (FBP) was commissioned in 1975 for preservation & maintenance of the Kolkata Port and for increasing the navigational depth of the Bhagirathi - Hooghly waterway.
The Farakka barrage in West Bengal regulates the flow of the Ganga, diverting some of the water into a feeder canal linking Hooghly to keep it relatively silt-free.
Downstream of the barrage the Ganga splits into two: the Bhagirathi (Hooghly) on the right and the Padma on the left, which enters Bangladesh.
The project has a total of 123 gates, and phase wise replacement of the gates of the main barrage and of the Head Regulator has been undertaken by the project authority.
Farakka is the last control structure on river Ganga in India, and the flow in the Ganga/Padma river and in the Farakka canal is regulated as per the India-Bangladesh Treaty-1996.
Under that Treaty the Ganga/Ganges waters are shared at Farakka during the lean period, from 1st January to 31st May every year, on a 10-day period basis as per the formula provided in the Treaty.
River:
Ganga
State:
West Bengal
Commissioned:
1975
Purpose:
preservation & maintenance of the Kolkata Port
Waterway kept navigable:
Bhagirathi - Hooghly waterway
Total gates:
123
Water sharing with Bangladesh:
India-Bangladesh Treaty-1996
Lean-season sharing period:
from 1st January to 31st May every year
Why it matters for exams: Farakka joins three favourite topics in one answer — a Ganga engineering work, the survival of Kolkata port, and India's water sharing with Bangladesh.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
Barrage — A low gated structure across a river that raises and regulates the water level without storing a large reservoir.
Feeder canal — A canal that takes water from a barrage and carries it to another channel; at Farakka it links the Ganga to the Hooghly.
Head regulator — The gated structure at the mouth of a canal that controls how much water enters it.
Background
The Consulate General of India in Istanbul records historical connections between India and Turkiye, noting that the Sufi Philosophy of Mevlana Jelaluddin Rumi found resonance in the Indian sub-continent with its own traditions of Sufism and the Bhakti movement.
A Bilateral Trade Agreement between India and Turkiye was signed in 1973, followed by an Agreement on setting up an India-Turkiye Joint Commission on Economic and Technical Cooperation (JCETC) in 1983; under that Agreement JCETC meetings are held alternately in India and Turkiye, co-chaired by the trade ministers of the two countries.
Foreign Office Consultations at Secretary level were institutionalized through a Protocol signed in April 2000.
Bilateral trade grew by 28.99% during FY 2022-23, crossing USD 13.80 billion, making Turkiye India's 26th largest trading partner; trade in FY 2023-24 stood at USD 10.43 billion, making Turkiye India's 28th largest trading partner.
There are currently around 3000 estimated Indian nationals in Turkiye, around 1850 of them in Istanbul and adjoining provinces, and around 350 Indian students.
Bilateral Trade Agreement signed:
1973
JCETC agreement signed:
1983
Protocol on Foreign Office Consultations:
April 2000
Bilateral trade in FY 2022-23:
crossing USD 13.80 billion, a growth of 28.99%
Bilateral trade in FY 2023-24:
USD 10.43 billion
Estimated Indian nationals in Turkiye:
around 3000
Indian students in Turkiye:
around 350
Why it matters for exams: Country Focus questions on a foreign state almost always include its relationship with India, and the dated instruments of the India-Turkiye relationship are the kind of named agreement an examiner can test in one line.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
JCETC Joint Commission on Economic and Technical Cooperation — The India-Turkiye joint body set up by an agreement of 1983 to carry the economic and technical side of the relationship; its meetings are held alternately in the two countries and co-chaired by their trade ministers.
Foreign Office Consultations — Regular talks between the foreign ministries of two countries, institutionalized between India and Turkiye by a Protocol of April 2000.
Background
The Embassy of India in Doha describes the Indian community in Qatar as around 830,000 strong and vibrant, and records that Indians comprise the largest expatriate community in Qatar. India's diplomatic relations with Qatar were established in 1973, and the year 2023 marked the 50th anniversary of that event; the relationship was elevated to a strategic partnership during the State Visit of the Amir of Qatar, Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, to India in February 2025. Energy is the spine of the relationship. Qatar is the largest supplier of LNG to India, which took 10.86 million tonnes of it for US$ 5.61 billion in FY 2025-26, and Qatar is also India's largest supplier of LPG. A long-term LNG sale and purchase agreement was signed in February 2024, during the visit of Qatar's Minister of State for Energy Affairs to India Energy Week; the deal stipulates 7.5 MMTPA of supply by QatarEnergy to Petronet LNG for 20 years starting from 2028. In FY 2025-26 India's bilateral trade with Qatar stood at USD 13.91 billion, made up of Indian exports of USD 1.62 billion and imports of USD 12.29 billion, and in FY 2024-25 it was almost the same at USD 14.14 billion. Hydrocarbons dominate that trade: at US$ 10.81 billion in FY 2025-26 they accounted for 77.71% of overall bilateral trade. Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid an official visit to Qatar on 14-15 February 2024, his second visit to the country.
Indian community in Qatar:
around 830,000; the largest expatriate community in Qatar
Diplomatic relations established:
1973; the 50th anniversary was marked in 2023
Strategic partnership:
elevated during the Amir's State Visit to India, February 2025
LNG from Qatar (FY 2025-26):
10.86 million tonnes for US$ 5.61 billion; Qatar is India's largest LNG supplier
QatarEnergy - Petronet LNG agreement (February 2024):
7.5 MMTPA of LNG for 20 years starting from 2028
Bilateral trade:
USD 13.91 billion in FY 2025-26 (exports 1.62, imports 12.29); USD 14.14 billion in FY 2024-25
Hydrocarbon share of trade (FY 2025-26):
US$ 10.81 billion, 77.71% of overall bilateral trade
Why it matters for exams: Kerala sends a very large share of the Indian workforce in Qatar, and the community size, the Petronet LNG contract and the bilateral trade figure are the numbers an examiner uses to test the India-Qatar relationship.
Kerala PSCUPSCBank
In plain words
MMTPA Million metric tonnes per annum — The unit in which long-term LNG supply contracts state their yearly volume.
Sale and purchase agreement SPA — The contract that fixes the volume, price basis and duration of an energy supply deal.
Background
Qatar is a peninsula on the Arabian Gulf whose terrain is desert and beach. Its capital is Doha — in Arabic ad-Dawha, which means 'the big tree' — and the city too stands on the coast. The Qatar Atlas of the National Planning Council puts the total land area of Qatar at approximately 11,636.8 square kilometres, a figure calculated from the total zone area for the census of 2020. The peninsula lies between latitudes 24° 27' and 26° 10' North and longitudes 50° 40' and 51° 40' East. Arabic is the official language of the country and Islam is its official religion, with Shari'a, Islamic law, as the principal source of legislation. The ruling line is the Al Thani family: Sheikh Jassim bin Mohammed bin Thani, named as the founder of the State of Qatar, took over the affairs of the country after his father died on 18 December 1878, and the present ruler, Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, assumed his duties as Amir on 25 June 2013.
Capital:
Doha (in Arabic ad-Dawha, 'the big tree')
Total land area:
approximately 11,636.8 sq km (from the total zone area for census 2020)
Official language:
Arabic
Official religion:
Islam
Principal source of legislation:
Shari'a (Islamic law)
Founder of the State of Qatar:
Sheikh Jassim bin Mohammed bin Thani; took over after his father's death on 18 December 1878
Present Amir:
Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, from 25 June 2013
Why it matters for exams: Capital, official language, area and the source of legislation are the standard first-line facts an examiner asks about any Gulf country, and the 11,636.8 sq km area and the 1878 succession of Sheikh Jassim are the details that separate Qatar from its neighbours.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
Shari'a — Islamic law, which the Qatar Atlas names as the principal source of legislation in Qatar.
Arabian Gulf — The sea arm between the Arabian Peninsula and Iran, on which the Qatar peninsula sits.
Background
The Kolkata Port is the first Major Port as well as the only riverine port of the country.
It came to be governed by a Trust on 17th October, 1870, on appointment of the Commissioners for Improvement of the Port of Calcutta as per Act V of 1870.
On 3 June 2020 the Union Cabinet gave its approval to rename Kolkata Port as Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, after the Board of Trustees of Kolkata Port Trust had passed a resolution to that effect on 25th February, 2020.
Several Indian major ports have been renamed in this way: Nhava Sheva Port Trust was renamed as Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust in the year 1989.
Tuticorin Port Trust was renamed as V.O. Chidambaranar Port Trust in 2011.
Kandla Port Trust was renamed as Deendayal Port in 2017.
Present name:
Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata
Governed by a Trust from:
17th October, 1870
Enabling Act:
Act V of 1870
Union Cabinet approval for renaming:
3 June 2020
Distinction:
First Major Port and only riverine port of the country
Why it matters for exams: The renamed major ports are a favourite matching set, and Kolkata is the one port an examiner can describe as both the first major port and the only riverine port.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSCBank
In plain words
Major Port — A port of India administered under central law rather than by the state government.
Riverine port — A port built on a river rather than on the open coast, so ships must sail upstream to reach it.
Background
Turkiye is a member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization. NATO was created by 12 countries from Europe and North America on 4 April 1949, when the North Atlantic Treaty was signed in Washington; Turkiye was not one of those founding members. Three years after the signing of the Washington Treaty, on 18 February 1952, Greece and Turkiye joined NATO. Article 10 of the North Atlantic Treaty sets out how countries can join the Alliance, membership being open to any European state in a position to further the principles of the Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area. As of 2026, NATO has 32 member countries.
Date Turkiye joined NATO:
18 February 1952
Joined on the same day as:
Greece
North Atlantic Treaty signed:
4 April 1949
Founding members:
12
Member countries (as of 2026):
32
Accession article of the Treaty:
Article 10
Why it matters for exams: Turkiye is the standard example of a NATO member that is not an EU member, so examiners use it to test whether a candidate can tell a security alliance apart from an economic and political union.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
Washington Treaty North Atlantic Treaty — The founding treaty of NATO, signed on 4 April 1949 by 12 countries of Europe and North America.
Article 10 — The open door clause of the North Atlantic Treaty, which sets out how a European state can be invited to join the Alliance.
Candidate country — A state whose application to join the European Union has been accepted for negotiation but which is not yet a member; Turkiye applied in 1987, was declared a candidate at Helsinki in December 1999 and opened accession negotiations in 2005.
13 October 2026
The State Election Commission of the Union Territory has appointed returning officers and assistant returning officers for all 35 wards of the Chandigarh Municipal Corporation.
State Election Commissioner Vijay Dev issued the notifications on October 13, in consultation with the Chandigarh Administration.
Nine officers will act as electoral registration officers and returning officers-cum-scrutinising officers, each for a group of wards.
Pradhuman Singh has wards 1 to 4, Nitish Singla, Director of School Education, wards 5 to 8, and Khushpreet Kaur wards 33 to 35.
Three officers have been designated as reserve returning officers.
A separate notification names assistant electoral registration officers, who will also serve as assistant returning officers.
Wards:
35
Officers for ward groups:
9
Reserve returning officers:
3
Notifications issued:
October 13, 2026
Why it matters for exams: Municipal elections are conducted by the State Election Commission under Part IXA of the Constitution, a frequent polity question.
Kerala PSCUPSCSSC
In plain words
SEC State Election Commission — Constitutional body that conducts panchayat and municipal elections; Article 243ZA covers municipalities.
RO Returning Officer — The officer who receives nominations, conducts the poll in a constituency and declares the result.
ERO Electoral Registration Officer — The officer responsible for preparing and revising the electoral roll.
DANICS Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands Civil Service — A central civil service cadre whose officers serve in Delhi and the Union Territories.
13 October 2026
Chief Minister Omar Abdullah on Tuesday reviewed arrangements for the Darbar Move, the shifting of Jammu and Kashmir's capital between Srinagar and Jammu.
He directed JKRTC and the Traffic Department to move employees and records over two days, October 31 and November 1.
The capital moves from Srinagar to Jammu every year in the first week of November.
The 150-year-old practice was started by Dogra Maharaja Gulab Singh.
Commissioner Secretary of the General Administration Department M Raju presented the convoy plan.
A Winter Secretariat will function in Srinagar, with monthly rosters for Ministers and Administrative Secretaries from November.
Convoy dates:
October 31 and November 1
Winter capital:
Jammu (from first week of November)
Started by:
Dogra Maharaja Gulab Singh
Age of practice:
150 years
Why it matters for exams: The Darbar Move, J&K's twin capitals and the Dogra rulers are frequent state-focus and history questions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Darbar Move — The twice-yearly shifting of Jammu and Kashmir's seat of government between Srinagar (summer) and Jammu (winter).
JKRTC Jammu and Kashmir Road Transport Corporation — The public road transport undertaking of Jammu and Kashmir.
Gulab Singh — Founder of the Dogra dynasty that ruled the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
13 October 2026
The 13th All India Sustainable Mountain Development Summit was held from October 12 to 14 at the Shalimar Convention Centre of SKUAST-Kashmir in Srinagar.
Its theme was "Contouring Sustainable Himalayan Landscapes for Inclusive Viksit Bharat", and it was jointly organised by SKUAST-K and the Integrated Mountain Initiative (IMI).
Deliberations centred on the draft Jammu & Kashmir Sustainable Mountain Development Policy 2026.
Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh said preserving the Himalayas is a national responsibility.
He said DST has identified three centres for Himalayan climate research, at the University of Kashmir, Sikkim University and Tezpur University, under the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem.
He added that India's weather radar network has grown from 16 radars in 2014 to 50, with another 50 planned under Mission Mausam.
Summit dates:
October 12-14, 2026
Venue:
Shalimar Convention Centre, SKUAST-K
Policy under discussion:
Draft J&K Sustainable Mountain Development Policy 2026
Weather radars:
16 (2014) to 50
Why it matters for exams: Himalayan ecology, NAPCC missions and state-level mountain policy are linked environment topics.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
SKUAST-K Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology of Kashmir — The agricultural university of the Kashmir division, with its campus at Shalimar, Srinagar.
NMSHE National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem — One of the missions under India's National Action Plan on Climate Change, handled by the Department of Science and Technology.
Mission Mausam — The Union government's mission to upgrade weather observation and forecasting.
13 October 2026
Argentina has asked the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) to order the United Kingdom to halt an offshore oil project near the Falkland Islands (Malvinas).
The Hamburg-based tribunal announced the request on Tuesday.
Argentina wants the Sea Lion development in the North Malvinas Basin stopped while an arbitration case it launched on 28 September is under way.
The UN lists the Falkland Islands (Malvinas) as a non-self-governing territory.
Britain has administered the islands since 1833; Argentina claims sovereignty, and the two countries fought a war over them in 1982.
President Javier Milei had given London a two-week ultimatum over the project.
Tribunal:
ITLOS, Hamburg
Project:
Sea Lion, North Malvinas Basin
Arbitration launched:
28 September
British administration since:
1833
Why it matters for exams: ITLOS, UNCLOS dispute settlement and the Falklands dispute are classic world-affairs questions.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
ITLOS International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea — The court set up under UNCLOS to settle disputes over the law of the sea, seated in Hamburg.
Non-self-governing territory — A territory the UN lists as not yet having attained a full measure of self-government.
13 October 2026
UN Secretary-General António Guterres presented a $3.3 billion programme budget proposal for 2027 on Tuesday.
The proposal is a cut of $40.8 million and is 1.2 per cent below the 2026 approved level.
He presented it to the General Assembly's Fifth Committee, made up of all 193 Member States, which handles administrative and budgetary matters.
Under the UN80 Initiative he proposed post relocations across 12 entities, the largest to Nairobi, and the downgrading of 14 senior positions.
For the first time the budget includes standard-cost adjustments from the outset, so there will be no separate recosting later.
He said efficiency alone cannot fix the liquidity crisis and that Member States must pay their dues in full and on time.
Proposed 2027 budget:
$3.3 billion
Cut:
$40.8 million (1.2 per cent)
Committee:
Fifth Committee, 193 Member States
Senior posts downgraded:
14
Why it matters for exams: The General Assembly's main committees, UN financing and the UN80 reform drive are common UPSC topics.
Kerala PSCUPSC
In plain words
Fifth Committee Administrative and Budgetary Committee — The General Assembly committee of all Member States that deals with UN administration and budgets.
UN80 Initiative — The Secretary-General's reform drive to make the UN Secretariat more efficient, launched as the UN neared 80 years.
Recosting — Re-calculating a budget later in the year for changes in prices and exchange rates.